A particle is moving along the -x-axis in simple harmonic motion - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 1 - Question 13 - 2015 - Paper 1
Question 13
A particle is moving along the -x-axis in simple harmonic motion. The displacement of the particle is $x$ metres and its velocity is $v$ m s$^{-1}$. The parabola bel... show full transcript
Worked Solution & Example Answer:A particle is moving along the -x-axis in simple harmonic motion - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 1 - Question 13 - 2015 - Paper 1
Step 1
For what value(s) of $x$ is the particle at rest?
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Answer
The particle is at rest when its velocity v=0. Referring to the parabola showing v2 as a function of x, we set:
v2=0
This leads to:
n2(a2−(x−c)2)=0
Thus, we find:
a2−(x−c)2=0
This implies:
(x−c)=±a
Hence, the solution for x is:
x=c+a and x=c−a.
Step 2
What is the maximum speed of the particle?
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Answer
To find the maximum speed, we observe that maximum speed occurs when v2 reaches its highest point on the parabola, which is equal to n2a2. Therefore, the maximum speed is given by:
vmax=na.
Step 3
What are the values of $a$, $c$ and $n$?
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From the equation given:
v2=n2(a2−(x−c)2),
we can identify that:
a corresponds to the amplitude of oscillation,
c is the equilibrium position, and
n represents the angular frequency.
Thus, the exact values of a, c, and n will depend on the specific parameters of the harmonic motion being analyzed.
Step 4
Find an expression for $a_{2}$.
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Using the binomial theorem, we can find the coefficients. The general term (k+1) in the expansion is:
Tk+1=(k18)(2x)18−k(3x1)k
To find a2, we need the term where k=2:
Find an expression for the term independent of $x$.
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The term independent of x occurs when the exponent of x is zero in the binomial expansion:
18−k+3k=0
This leads to:
k=454=13.5, which is not possible since k must be an integer.
Thus, we examine the closest integer values. Ultimately, we find:
T5+T6+... will yield the independent term, giving us a calculation of the remaining coefficients.
Step 6
Prove by mathematical induction that for all integers $n \geq 1$, $\frac{1}{2!} + \frac{3}{3!} + \cdots + \frac{n}{(n + 1)!} = \frac{1}{(n + 1)!}$.
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Let P(n) be the statement.
Base Case: For n=1:
2!1=(1+1)!1
This is true.
Inductive Step: Assume true for n=k, that is:
P(k):∑i=1k(i+1)!i=(k+1)!1
Now for n=k+1:
P(k+1):∑i=1k+1(i+1)!i=(k+1)!1+((k+1)+1)!k+1
This needs to simplify to:
P(k+1):(k+2)!1
Consequently, the statement holds for n=k+1 using the identity. Hence by induction, it is true for all integers n≥1.
Step 7
By considering the derivative of $f(x)$, prove that $f(x)$ is constant.
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First, we calculate the derivative:
f′(x)=1−x2−1+1−(−x)2−1
Since 1−x2 is symmetric, we have:
f′(x)=−1−x21−1−x21=0
Therefore, f′(x)=0 for all x in the domain, indicating that f(x) is constant.
Step 8
Hence deduce that $cos^{-1}(-x) = n - cos^{-1}(x)$.
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Since we have established that f(x) is constant, substituting x with −x gives us:
f(−x)=cos−1(−x)+cos−1(x)=constant
Since we know that:
f(x)=cos−1(x)+cos−1(−x)
Thus, we can assert:
cos−1(−x)=n−cos−1(x),
where n is equal to the constant value of f(x), confirming the result.