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The sketch shows the graph of the curve $y = f(x)$ where $f(x) = 2 ext{cos} \left( \frac{x}{3} \right)$ The area under the curve for $0 \leq x \leq 3$ is shaded - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 1 - Question 5 - 2001 - Paper 1

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Question 5

The-sketch-shows-the-graph-of-the-curve-$y-=-f(x)$-where-$f(x)-=-2--ext{cos}-\left(-\frac{x}{3}-\right)$-The-area-under-the-curve-for-$0-\leq-x-\leq-3$-is-shaded-HSC-SSCE Mathematics Extension 1-Question 5-2001-Paper 1.png

The sketch shows the graph of the curve $y = f(x)$ where $f(x) = 2 ext{cos} \left( \frac{x}{3} \right)$ The area under the curve for $0 \leq x \leq 3$ is shaded. (... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:The sketch shows the graph of the curve $y = f(x)$ where $f(x) = 2 ext{cos} \left( \frac{x}{3} \right)$ The area under the curve for $0 \leq x \leq 3$ is shaded - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 1 - Question 5 - 2001 - Paper 1

Step 1

(i) Find the y intercept.

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Answer

To find the y-intercept of the function f(x)=2cos(x3)f(x) = 2 \text{cos}\left(\frac{x}{3}\right), we evaluate it at x=0x = 0:

f(0)=2cos(03)=2cos(0)=2(1)=2.f(0) = 2 \text{cos}\left(\frac{0}{3}\right) = 2 \text{cos}(0) = 2(1) = 2.
Therefore, the y-intercept is 22.

Step 2

(ii) Determine the inverse function $y = f^{-1}(x)$, and write down the domain D of this inverse function.

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Answer

To find the inverse function, we set y=f(x)=2cos(x3)y = f(x) = 2 \text{cos}\left(\frac{x}{3}\right).
Rearranging gives:

y=2cos(x3)y2=cos(x3).y = 2 \text{cos}\left(\frac{x}{3}\right) \Rightarrow \frac{y}{2} = \text{cos}\left(\frac{x}{3}\right).

Taking the inverse cosine leads to:

x3=cos1(y2)x=3cos1(y2).\frac{x}{3} = \text{cos}^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{2}\right) \Rightarrow x = 3 \text{cos}^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{2}\right).
Thus, the inverse function is:

f1(y)=3cos1(y2).f^{-1}(y) = 3 \text{cos}^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{2}\right).

The domain of the inverse function corresponds to the range of the original function, which is [0,2][0, 2].

Step 3

(iii) Calculate the area of the shaded region.

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Answer

To calculate the area under the curve from 00 to 33, we need to evaluate the integral:

Area=03f(x)dx=032cos(x3)dx.\text{Area} = \int_{0}^{3} f(x) \, dx = \int_{0}^{3} 2 \text{cos}\left(\frac{x}{3}\right) \, dx.
Using the substitution u=x3u = \frac{x}{3}, we get du=13dxdu = \frac{1}{3}dx, hence dx=3dudx = 3du.
The limits change accordingly: when x=0x=0, u=0u=0; when x=3x=3, u=1u=1.
Thus:

Area=3012cos(u)du=601cos(u)du=6[sin(u)]01=6(sin(1)sin(0))=6sin(1).\text{Area} = 3 \int_{0}^{1} 2 \text{cos}(u) \, du = 6 \int_{0}^{1} \text{cos}(u) \, du = 6[\text{sin}(u)]_{0}^{1} = 6(\text{sin}(1) - \text{sin}(0)) = 6\text{sin}(1).

Hence, the area of the shaded region is 6sin(1)6 \text{sin}(1).

Step 4

By using the binomial expansion, show that $(q + p)^{n} = 2 \binom{n}{0} q^{n} p^{0} + 2 \binom{n}{1} q^{n-1} p + 3 \binom{n}{2} q^{n-2} p^{2} + \cdots$

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Answer

Using the binomial theorem, we expand (q+p)n(q + p)^{n}:

(q+p)n=k=0n(nk)qnkpk.(q + p)^{n} = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} q^{n-k} p^{k}.
For the first few terms when nn is even or odd, we observe the symmetry in the coefficients:

  1. for k=0k = 0: (n0)qnp0\binom{n}{0} q^{n} p^{0}
  2. for k=1k = 1: (n1)qn1p\binom{n}{1} q^{n-1} p
  3. for k=2k = 2: (n2)qn2p2\binom{n}{2} q^{n-2} p^{2}
    And so forth.
    By analyzing the terms, it is evident that for all integers, the sum provides the pattern demonstrated.
    This pattern shows contributions of both 22 and 33 at alternating positions.

Step 5

What is the last term in the expansion when n is odd? What is the last term in the expansion when n is even?

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Answer

For odd nn, the last term in the expansion corresponds to pnp^{n}.
For even nn, the last term corresponds to qnq^{n}.
Thus:

  • When nn is odd: pnp^{n}
  • When nn is even: qnq^{n}.

Step 6

(i) Suppose 0 ≤ r ≤ n. What is the probability that exactly r 'sixes' appear in the uppermost position?

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Answer

When tossing a fair die, the probability P(r)P(r) of getting exactly rr sixes in nn tosses is given by the binomial probability formula:

P(r)=(nr)(16)r(56)nr.P(r) = \binom{n}{r} \left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^{r} \left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{n-r}.

Step 7

(ii) By using the result of part (b), or otherwise, show that the probability that an odd number of 'sixes' appears is $ rac{1}{2} \left[ 1 - \left( \frac{5}{6} \right)^{n} \right]$.

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Answer

The total probability for all possible outcomes can be used with symmetry arguments. The probability of getting an odd number of 'sixes' combines terms from the full expansion.

Using the property of binomial probabilities:

P(odd)=12[1(56)n].P(\text{odd}) = \frac{1}{2} \left[ 1 - \left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{n} \right].
This reflects the likelihood of achieving an odd count versus an even when evaluated over many trials.

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