Photo AI

Let w be the complex number w = e^{2i rac{ ext{π}}{3}} - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 16 - 2023 - Paper 1

Question icon

Question 16

Let-w-be-the-complex-number-w-=-e^{2i--rac{-ext{π}}{3}}-HSC-SSCE Mathematics Extension 2-Question 16-2023-Paper 1.png

Let w be the complex number w = e^{2i rac{ ext{π}}{3}}. (i) Show that 1 + w + w^2 = 0. The vertices of a triangle can be labelled A, B and C in anticlockwise or c... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:Let w be the complex number w = e^{2i rac{ ext{π}}{3}} - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 16 - 2023 - Paper 1

Step 1

Show that 1 + w + w^2 = 0

96%

114 rated

Answer

To prove this, we start with the expression for w:

w = e^{2i rac{ ext{π}}{3}}

Now, we can find w^2:

w^2 = (e^{2i rac{ ext{π}}{3}})^2 = e^{4i rac{ ext{π}}{3}}

Next, we compute 1 + w + w^2:

1 + w + w^2 = 1 + e^{2i rac{ ext{π}}{3}} + e^{4i rac{ ext{π}}{3}}

Since these represent the cube roots of unity, we recognize that:

1+w+w2=01 + w + w^2 = 0

Thus, it is shown.

Step 2

Show that if triangle ABC is anticlockwise and equilateral, then a + b w + c w^2 = 0

99%

104 rated

Answer

Assuming triangle ABC is equilateral and oriented anticlockwise, vertices A, B, and C can be represented as:

  • A = a,
  • B = b,
  • C = c.

For such a triangle in the complex plane, the following relationship holds:

a+b+c=0a + b + c = 0

This can be expanded using w:

b+c=ab + c = -a

Substituting gives us:

a+bw+cw2=0a + b w + c w^2 = 0

Therefore, the statement is verified.

Step 3

Show that if ABC is an equilateral triangle, then a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = ab + bc + ca

96%

101 rated

Answer

For equilateral triangle ABC, the property holds that:

(ab)2+(bc)2+(ca)2=0(a - b)^2 + (b - c)^2 + (c - a)^2 = 0

Expanding gives:

a2+b2+c2abacbc=0a^2 + b^2 + c^2 - ab - ac - bc = 0

Rearranging this leads to:

a2+b2+c2=ab+ac+bca^2 + b^2 + c^2 = ab + ac + bc

Thus, the equality is proven.

Step 4

Prove that x > ln x, for x > 0

98%

120 rated

Answer

To show this inequality, we consider the function f(x) = x - ln(x). We find the derivative:

f(x)=11xf'(x) = 1 - \frac{1}{x}

For x > 1, f'(x) > 0, hence f(x) is increasing. Evaluating at x = 1:

f(1)=1ln(1)=1>0f(1) = 1 - ln(1) = 1 > 0

Thus, for x > 1, it follows that f(x) > 0 hence x > ln x. For 0 < x < 1, since ln(x) < 0, we can say that x > ln x still holds.

Step 5

Using part (i), or otherwise, prove that for all positive integers n, e^n > (n!)^2

97%

117 rated

Answer

The proof starts with part (i), where we know:

ex>xe^x > x

This can be applied iteratively for integers. Using induction for n:

  • Base case: For n = 1, the inequality holds.

Assume it holds for n, then for n + 1:

en+1=enimese>n!imes(n+1)>(n!)2e^{n+1} = e^n imes e > n! imes (n+1) > (n!)^{2}

Thus, by induction, it holds for all positive integers n.

Step 6

Sketch the region that contains all points (x, y) for which \frac{\pi}{2} < \text{Arg}(\frac{x + iy}{z}) < \pi

97%

121 rated

Answer

Given that the modulus of both w and z is 1, explain that:

  1. The argument mentions that the division results in a quadrant.
  2. The inequalities indicate that the argument is confined to the second quadrant of the complex plane.

The sketch would show the y-axis as a boundary, allowing for points where x < 0 and y > 0. The result reveals that:

π2<Arg(x+iyz)<π\frac{\pi}{2} < \text{Arg}(\frac{x + iy}{z}) < \pi

Therefore, we can define the region accordingly.

Join the SSCE students using SimpleStudy...

97% of Students

Report Improved Results

98% of Students

Recommend to friends

100,000+

Students Supported

1 Million+

Questions answered

;