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Let $w$ be the complex number $w = e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}}$ - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 16 - 2023 - Paper 1

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Let-$w$-be-the-complex-number-$w-=-e^{\frac{2\pi-i}{3}}$-HSC-SSCE Mathematics Extension 2-Question 16-2023-Paper 1.png

Let $w$ be the complex number $w = e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}}$. (i) Show that $1 + w + w^2 = 0$. The vertices of a triangle can be labelled $A$, $B$ and $C$ in anticlock... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:Let $w$ be the complex number $w = e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}}$ - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 16 - 2023 - Paper 1

Step 1

Show that $1 + w + w^2 = 0$

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Answer

To show that 1+w+w2=01 + w + w^2 = 0, we know that w=e2πi3w = e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}}.

Calculating w2w^2: w2=(e2πi3)2=e4πi3.w^2 = (e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}})^2 = e^{\frac{4\pi i}{3}}.

Now we need to find the sum: 1+w+w2=1+e2πi3+e4πi3.1 + w + w^2 = 1 + e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}} + e^{\frac{4\pi i}{3}}.

Using properties of complex exponentials: 1+e2πi3+e4πi3=01 + e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}} + e^{\frac{4\pi i}{3}} = 0 This is because these points represent vertices of an equilateral triangle in the complex plane, summing to zero.

Step 2

Show that if triangle $ABC$ is anticlockwise and equilateral, then $a + bv + cw = 0$

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Answer

For triangle ABCABC to be equilateral and anticlockwise, we can rotate the points in the complex plane such that:

  1. The point AA can be taken as aa.
  2. The point BB can be defined as b=e2πi3ab = e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}}a (90 degree rotation).
  3. The point CC can be defined as c=e4πi3ac = e^{\frac{4\pi i}{3}}a. Thus, we have:
a + bv + cw &= a + e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}} a + e^{\frac{4\pi i}{3}} a \ &= a(1 + e^{\frac{2\pi i}{3}} + e^{\frac{4\pi i}{3}}) \ &= 0 \quad \text{(as shown in part (i))}. \end{align*}$$

Step 3

Show that if $ABC$ is an equilateral triangle, then $a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = ab + bc + ca$

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Answer

For an equilateral triangle, using the property of symmetric sums, we can say:

a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = ab + bc + ca \ \Rightarrow (a + b + c)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + 2(ab + bc + ca) \ \Rightarrow 0 = 0 \text{ if } a = b = c. \end{align*}$$ This further proves that this relationship holds true for any equilateral triangle.

Step 4

Prove that $x > 1$ implies $x > \ln x$, for $x > 0$

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Answer

Define the function: f(x)=xlnx.f(x) = x - \ln x.

Calculating its derivative gives: f(x)=11x.f'(x) = 1 - \frac{1}{x}.

For x>1x > 1, we have f(x)>0f'(x) > 0, indicating that the function is increasing. Also, at x=1x = 1, we find: f(1)=1ln(1)=1>0.f(1) = 1 - \ln(1) = 1 > 0. Therefore, for all x>1,f(x)>0x>lnx.x > 1, f(x) > 0 \Rightarrow x > \ln x.

Step 5

Prove that for all positive integers $n$, $e^{nx} > (n!)^2$

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Answer

Using induction, we let the base case for n=1n = 1 be true: ex>1>12.e^x > 1 > 1^2.

Assuming true for nn, we can show for n+1n + 1: e(n+1)x=eximesenx>1×(n!)2=(n!)2.e^{(n + 1)x} = e^x imes e^{nx} > 1 \times (n!)^2 = (n!)^2.

Hence, by inductive reasoning, it holds for all positive integers.

Step 6

Sketch the region that contains all points $(x, y)$ where $\frac{\pi}{2} < \text{Arg}(\frac{x + iy}{z}) < \pi$

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Answer

The argument of complex number rac{x + iy}{z} is a representation of the angle in polar coordinates. We want to identify the region between angles:

  1. π2\frac{\pi}{2} represents the positive imaginary axis.
  2. π\pi represents the negative real axis. Thus, the required region is the left half of the complex plane above the real axis, excluding the line Arg=π2\text{Arg} = \frac{\pi}{2} and Arg=π\text{Arg} = \pi.

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