Using the substitution $t = \tan \frac{\theta}{2}$, or otherwise, show that
$$\cot \theta + 2 \tan \frac{\theta}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \cot \frac{\theta}{2}.$$
Use mathematical induction to prove that, for integers $n \geq 1$,
$$\sum_{r=1}^{n} \frac{1}{2^{r}} \tan \frac{\theta}{2^{r-1}} = \frac{1}{2^{n}} \cot \frac{\theta}{2^{n}}.$$
Show that
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{r=1}^{n} \frac{1}{2^{r}} \tan \frac{x}{2^{r}} = 2 \cot x.$$
Hence find the exact value of
$$\tan \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{2} \tan \frac{\pi}{8} + \frac{1}{4} \tan \frac{\pi}{16} + \ldots$$
Let $n$ be a positive integer greater than 1 - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 8 - 2009 - Paper 1
Question 8
Using the substitution $t = \tan \frac{\theta}{2}$, or otherwise, show that
$$\cot \theta + 2 \tan \frac{\theta}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \cot \frac{\theta}{2}.$$
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Worked Solution & Example Answer:Using the substitution $t = \tan \frac{\theta}{2}$, or otherwise, show that
$$\cot \theta + 2 \tan \frac{\theta}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \cot \frac{\theta}{2}.$$
Use mathematical induction to prove that, for integers $n \geq 1$,
$$\sum_{r=1}^{n} \frac{1}{2^{r}} \tan \frac{\theta}{2^{r-1}} = \frac{1}{2^{n}} \cot \frac{\theta}{2^{n}}.$$
Show that
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{r=1}^{n} \frac{1}{2^{r}} \tan \frac{x}{2^{r}} = 2 \cot x.$$
Hence find the exact value of
$$\tan \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{2} \tan \frac{\pi}{8} + \frac{1}{4} \tan \frac{\pi}{16} + \ldots$$
Let $n$ be a positive integer greater than 1 - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 8 - 2009 - Paper 1
Step 1
Using the substitution $t = \tan \frac{\theta}{2}$, or otherwise, show that
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Answer
To show that cotθ+2tan2θ=21cot2θ, we start with the left-hand side:
cotθ+2tan2θ=sinθcosθ+2⋅cos2θsin2θ.
Using the identities sinθ=2sin2θcos2θ and cosθ=2cos22θ−1, we manipulate the equation until we achieve the required right-hand side.
Step 2
Use mathematical induction to prove that, for integers $n \geq 1$,
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Answer
We prove the statement by induction:
Base Case: For n=1,
∑r=112r1tan2r−1θ=tan2θ=211cot21θ.
Inductive Step: Assume it holds for n=k:
∑r=1k2r1tan2r−1θ=2k1cot2kθ. Then,
∑r=1k+12r1tan2r−1θ=2k1tan2kθ+2k+11tan2kθ.
Evaluating the left-hand side leads to the right-hand side, confirming the induction step.
Step 3
Show that
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Answer
To evaluate the limit,
limn→∞∑r=1n2r1tan2rx=2cotx,
we note that as n approaches infinity, tan2rx approaches 2rx. This transforms our limit to:
∑r=1n2r2rx=∑r=1n22rx=x∑r=1n4r1=3x.
Therefore, the limit is justified and matches the expression provided.
Step 4
Hence find the exact value of
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Answer
To find the exact value of the sum,
tan4π+21tan8π+41tan16π+…
we simplify using the results from our previous parts. Recognizing this as an infinite series, we compute:
S=∑k=0∞2k1tan2k+2π.
By employing the results from our earlier calculations, we derive the exact value.
Step 5
Show that
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Answer
We can apply the bounds to show that
e−n−11<(1−n1)n<e−1.
To do this, we use the definitions of the areas of the rectangles to treat the integral and establish the inequality, confirming the areas are bounded appropriately by the specified equations.
Step 6
Show that $W = p + q^{n} W.$
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Answer
To demonstrate the equation, we consider the case where W is the probability that A1 wins the game. The winning scenarios can be categorized into drawing their own card (which happens with probability p) and drawing another card, in which case, the probability becomes qnW. Hence, the expression holds as outlined.
Step 7
Let $p = \frac{1}{n}$ and $q = 1 - p = \frac{n - 1}{n}.$
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This establishes the necessary probabilities for our analysis. Using these values, we can substitute into our previous equation, revealing further relationships as derived in part (i).
Step 8
Show that$W = \frac{1}{n} + \left(1 - \frac{1}{n}\right)^{n} W.$
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Answer
By reinforcing the equation through computational methods or algebraic manipulation, we establish the connection between W and the probabilities defined initially, replicating the recursive relation needed in our ultimate solution.
Step 9
Use part (b) to show that, if $n$ is large, $W_n$ is approximately equal to $1 - e^{-1}.$
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Answer
For large n, we recognize that:
$$W_n \approx 1 - \frac{1}{n} + \left(1 - \frac{1}{n}\right)^{n} \implies W_n \approx 1 - \left(1 - \frac{1}{n}\right)^{n}.$
Following the limit properties, as n approaches infinity, the expression converges to 1−e−1.