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George throws a ball at a target 15 times - Edexcel - A-Level Maths Statistics - Question 1 - 2022 - Paper 1

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George throws a ball at a target 15 times. Each time George throws the ball, the probability of the ball hitting the target is 0.48. The random variable X represent... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:George throws a ball at a target 15 times - Edexcel - A-Level Maths Statistics - Question 1 - 2022 - Paper 1

Step 1

Find P(X = 3)

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Answer

To find P(X = 3), we can use the binomial distribution, where X follows a Binomial distribution with parameters n = 15 and p = 0.48. The formula for a binomial probability is:

P(X = k) = {n race k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k}

Substituting the values:

P(X = 3) = {15 race 3} (0.48)^3 (0.52)^{12}

Calculating:

  1. Calculate the binomial coefficient: {15 race 3} = \frac{15!}{3!(15-3)!} = 455

  2. Calculate (0.48)3=0.110592(0.48)^3 = 0.110592 and (0.52)12=0.004932(0.52)^{12} = 0.004932.

  3. Combine these: P(X=3)=4550.1105920.0049320.0197P(X = 3) = 455 * 0.110592 * 0.004932 \approx 0.0197

Step 2

Find P(X > 5)

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Answer

To find P(X > 5), we use the complement rule:

P(X>5)=1P(X5)P(X > 5) = 1 - P(X \leq 5)

This requires finding P(X \leq 5), for which we sum the probabilities from 0 to 5:

P(X5)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)+P(X=4)+P(X=5)P(X \leq 5) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5)

Calculating each term using the binomial formula:

  1. P(X = 0) = {15 race 0} (0.48)^0 (0.52)^{15}
  2. P(X = 1) = {15 race 1} (0.48)^1 (0.52)^{14}
  3. P(X = 2) = {15 race 2} (0.48)^2 (0.52)^{13}
  4. P(X=3)P(X = 3) (which we calculated earlier)
  5. P(X = 4) = {15 race 4} (0.48)^4 (0.52)^{11}
  6. P(X = 5) = {15 race 5} (0.48)^5 (0.52)^{10}

After finding all probabilities, we find: P(X5)0.0790P(X \leq 5) \approx 0.0790 Thus, P(X>5)10.0790=0.9200P(X > 5) \approx 1 - 0.0790 = 0.9200

Step 3

Use a normal approximation to calculate the probability he will hit the target more than 110 times

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Answer

For George's new scenario with n = 250 and p = 0.48, we can use the normal approximation:

  1. Calculate the expected mean (\mu) and variance (\sigma^2): μ=np=2500.48=120\mu = np = 250 * 0.48 = 120 σ2=np(1p)=2500.480.52=30\sigma^2 = np(1-p) = 250 * 0.48 * 0.52 = 30 σ305.477\sigma \approx \sqrt{30} \approx 5.477

  2. Now, we want P(X > 110). For the normal approximation, we need to standardize this value: Z=XμσZ = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma} For X = 110: Z=1101205.4771.826Z = \frac{110 - 120}{5.477} \approx -1.826

  3. Using the Z-table, we find: P(Z>1.826)0.9686P(Z > -1.826) \approx 0.9686

  4. Therefore, the probability that he will hit the target more than 110 times is approximately: P(X>110)0.9686P(X > 110) \approx 0.9686

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